CORE Subjects EC-6

So you're taking the CORE Subjects EC-6 and need to master the test? No problem. We have the 5 things you need!

1- Important Tidbits: There are a few important details you need to know, like the cost of the test, where to take it, and how many times you CAN take it...

2- What to Know: Each subtest focuses on a specific set of skills and knowledge. We breakdown the specific concepts, ideas, and skills you need to pass EACH subtest.

3- Testing Tips: How you answer each question is important. Did you know there are mathematically-proven ways to increase your chance of passing?

4- Practice Test: Get an idea for the kinds of questions on each subtest and see how well you know the concepts.

5- Helpful Resources: Let us tell you the best resources to use to get the in-depth preparation you need to pass the CORE Subjects EC-6!

CORE Subjects EC-6 Breakdown

The TExES CORE Subjects EC-6 is the test you must pass to teach at the elementary level in Texas. The exam consists of 5 individually graded subtests with a total of 267 multiple choice questions. You will have 5 hours to complete all five subtests.

The CORE Subjects EC-6 is difficult because you must pass each subtest (older versions of the test required a simple passing score) and each subtest is individually timed.

This page will give you a breakdown of the exam, what you need to know for each subtest, provide testing tips and strategies, a practice test, and resources. Keep scrolling down for this great information.

Table of Contents

CORE Subjects EC-6 Exam

CORE Subjects EC-6 Breakdown


Each subtest has a specific number of questions you must complete in the allotted time. Below is a breakdown of the number of question per subtest, as well as the time allotted to answer the questions.


English Language Arts


Social Studies                   


Fine Arts, Health, PE 

Questions          Time

- 75 Questions    -  105 Minutes

- 47 Questions    -  60 Minutes

- 41 Questions    -  35 Minutes

- 52 Questions     - 40 Minutes

- 52 Questions     - 40 Minutes

Important Tidbits


Cost: $131 for the CORE Subjects EC-6; $65 per subtest (if registering for an individual subtest(s)).

Locations: The CORE Subjects EC-6 is a Computer-Administered Test (CAT), so it can be taken at numerous locations across Texas, as well as a few locations outside of Texas.

Limited Number of Attempts: The state of Texas allows a person only 5 attempts to pass the CORE Subjects EC-6 before requiring a waiver for a 6th attempt. The process to get a waiver is time-consuming and expensive so it is best to prepare and pass the first time. For more information, contact the TEA or your Educator Preparation Program.

Who can take the test: Almost anybody. If you are not a certified teacher and not in an Educator Preparation Program, you can take the exam. All you have to do is register as a Pre-Admission Content test-taker. If you are a certified teacher, you can just register for the exam. If you are in an Educator Preparation Program, you can simply request test approval from your certification program.

Important CORE Subjects EC-6 Tips

What You Need to Know


English Language Arts and Reading

The English Language Arts and Reading portion of the exam is going to focus on the best practices to help students learn to read and write. Concepts, such as phonemic awareness, phonological awareness, oral language development, and reading comprehension, will be covered on the exam. Not only will a test-taker have to be familiar with the concepts, but also know the best practices for implementing instruction in the classroom.

The English questions on the CORE Subjects EC-6 will be mainly pedagogical- the questions will ask how best to teach the concepts to students. That means a test-taker must be familiar with the concepts and also the best way to implement the concepts in a classroom setting. The foundation of good preparation will be an understanding of English Language Arts terminology and the best practices of English Language Arts instruction.

One concept the test-taker should be familiar with is “scaffolding”. Scaffolding refers to supporting student learning by building new concepts upon familiar concepts- similar to how scaffolding helps support structure that is being built. Students learn better when the new information they process is conceptualized and taught through concepts they already know.

On the Reading and Language Arts, knowing how to best scaffold instruction when teaching the concepts (such as phonemic awareness, phonological awareness, oral language development, and reading comprehension) is essential to passing the exam. A helpful source to learn the best practices in Reading and Language Arts is the Put Reading First pamphlet.


The mathematics subtest can be the most intimidating for many test-takers. The reason is many test-takers do not feel comfortable with math, yet alone answering twenty-four math questions that range from solving for “x” to calculating a probability of a die roll to how best to teach fractions to fifth-graders. The good news is that the mathematics tested on the CORE Subjects EC-6 is, for the most part, basic mathematical skills that are used fairly often. When test-takers start to review for the mathematics questions they often find they remember much more than they thought and that math is easier now than when they were in school.

The numbers, operations, and algebraic thinking questions will be about patterns, whole numbers, rational numbers, basic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division), variables, and how best to apply formulas. Understanding how to use formulas (ETS will provide a reference sheet of formulas) and when to use formulas is essential for success on the mathematics subtest.

The geometry, measurement, and probability questions (transformations-rotations, reflections, etc., length, time, and mass) will require the test-taker to interpret data presented graphically, and basic questions regarding statistics (mean, median, mode, and range). To be successful on these questions the test-taker should have a broad understanding of how the mathematical concepts are used in a variety of contexts. A broad review consisting of content and practice questions is highly recommended; proper preparation for the mathematics exam requires working many practice questions to ensure one understands how best to implement the concepts.

Math builds upon itself more so than any other area. Addition must be learned before multiplication; multiplication must be learned before fractions. Because of this, the test-taker should have a comprehensive mathematics review. Many times, if a test-taker is confused in one area of mathematics, then that confusion will lead to trouble in many different areas. Being up-to-date on a wide spectrum of knowledge is critical to passing the mathematics subtest successfully.

All math questions on the CORE Subjects EC-6 are multiple-choice. A multiple-choice math exam is the easiest way to take a math exam. A great strategy to use on a multiple choice mathematics exam is “Guess and Check”. Don’t be afraid to plug all answer options into a problem to see which answer works best. Use all the advantages you can on the math subtest.

Social Studies

The United States history and government questions will focus primarily on how the United States began and how those beginnings influenced the nation and its leaders up until the present day. Key events such as the Mayflower Compact, the Revolutionary War, and the Gettysburg Address will be tested upon, as well as the ideology reflected in the events. The better understanding one has of the cause and effect relationship upon political ideology and important historical events of the United States; the better one will be able to answer history and government questions.

The geography questions will focus on the interaction between humans and their environment. Understanding how humans change the environment and how the environment catalyzes human adaptation are essential to correctly answering questions in this category. Also, it is very helpful to have a broad knowledge and understanding of influential cultures (Egyptian, Greek, Roman, etc.) and their impact on western civilization.

The world history questions will focus on the contributions of classical civilizations to modern western civilization. The broad political, social, and military influences of Greece and Rome will appear on the test; the test-taker needs to understand how important ideas and events from these civilizations influenced leaders of western countries.

Economic questions will largely center around basic economic concepts such as supply and demand, scarcity and choice, and the influence of government in the market.

Social Science is primarily a study of cause and effect. History can be seen as one event leading and shaping another event (one reason studying timelines is so important). The study of geography is important because it examines how humans interact with their environment; geography seeks to understand how environmental causes affect human behavior. The same is true of economics and government. How does human interaction cause events and behavior and how does human interaction affect events and behavior? Studying the Social Sciences through this perspective can be helpful because it provides a context for the concepts. More pragmatically, the more a test-taker understands historical events, the easier it is to eliminate answer options on the CORE Subjects EC-6.


The earth science questions will be about the structure, properties, and processes of the earth. Geological structures and formations, properties of solid Earth, and the water cycle are all aspects of earth science that will be tested. Earth science encompasses concepts such as: the formation of the earth, how to understand the age and structure of the earth, various cycles essential to life on the earth, and the impact of humans on the earth. Understanding how all these different concepts affect one another is important to having a full understanding of earth science.

The life science questions will be about adaptations in living organisms, the role of genetics, the effect of ecosystems on life, the effect of substances on life (i.e. nutrition, disease, drugs). Life science is best encompassed by the field of biology and the study of life on earth. Having a broad understanding of basic life processes, such as the function and structure of a plant and animal cell, is essential to successfully answering life science questions.

The physical science questions will be about the physical and chemical aspects of life and forces found in the universe. Understanding the laws of motion, the types of forces (applied force, electrical force, magnetic force, etc.), and how they are revealed in nature is essential in correctly answering the physical science questions.

The information tested by the Science subtest is on the level of concepts taught in an elementary classroom- so the information is not very technical or detailed. However, there is a lot of information taught in an elementary classroom so the test-taker should be up-to-date on their scientific knowledge.

Testing Tips


Passing the test can be a difficult thing, but luckily, we have developed some great strategies that will help you increase your score up to 10 points!  One of our strategies is a 4-step guide on how to answer a question:

Step 1: Read the question for a general comprehension.

What is the question about? This first step is to get a general idea of the question and a framework for what is happening in the question.

Step 2: Re-read the question

The second time you read the question look for:

-What is the question asking? This is the sentence with the question mark at the end.

-What is the age of the students? (If students are mentioned)

-What information is important in the question? Not all information in the prompt is relevant for the question.

Step 3 & 4: Read each answer option, and then re-read each answer option.

As you first read the answer options, try to not make a judgment if it is a correct answer.

On the second reading, try to eliminate the incorrect answers BEFORE trying to identify the correct answer.

Important CORE Subjects EC-6 Tips

CORE EC-6 Practice Test

English Language Arts and Reading Practice Test

*Answers at the bottom

1. Which of the following writing assignments would best assess a student’s use and understanding of citing works in writing?
   a. A personal narrative about a time students disagreed with a friend
   b. A persuasive letter to the school board about the school dress code
   c. A research paper about the Civil War
   d. A journal entry describing the outcome of a science experiment

2. Which of the following concepts involves understanding that spoken words consist of a sequence of individual sounds?
   a. Morphology
   b. Phonemic awareness
   c. Graphophonic knowledge
   d. Syntax

3. Which of the following phonemic awareness skills would be the last skill a student should be expected to master?
   a. Identifying suffixes and prefixes
   b. Removing syllables from the word
   c. Sounding out the word, or blending phonemes
   d. Phoneme deletion

4. When teaching decoding skills, what kind of words should a teacher use to introduce the concept?
   a. Single, closed-syllable words
   b. Multi-syllable words
   c. Words with clear suffixes and prefixes
   d. Vowel digraphs and diphthongs

5. How many phonemes are in the word “hat”?
   a. 1
   b. 2
   c. 3
   d. 4

6. Which of the following strategies should students first use in the process of interpreting graphs or charts containing numerical information?
   a. Analyze whether the chart or graph is the best method to communicate the information
   b. Review the title, headings, and legends to develop an understanding of the content presented in the graph or chart
   c. Determine the smallest and largest values on the graph or chart to get an understanding of the range of data presented
   d. Compare and contrast the data provided from the chart or graph to determine the high points and low points

7. Which of the following is the best way to assess the fluency skills and reading levels of sixth-grade students?
   a. Having students read silently and answer questions that follow the reading
   b. Having students read aloud to determine how fast they can read a text
   c. Having students read aloud for one minute and count the number of words read correctly
   d. Having students read silently and write down unfamiliar words

8. During the revising stage of the writing process, which of the following would be most beneficial for students?
   a. Brainstorming ideas
   b. Using a graphic organizer
   c. Typing their work on a computer
   d. Holding peer conferences

9. Which of the following will best support early elementary students in the prewriting stage of the writing process?
   a. Allowing students to use verbal communication to organize their thoughts
   b. Reviewing the first draft of each student’s writing
   c. Modeling the proper way to organize writing resources
   d. Working with upper elementary students to provide student-reviews and student guidance on brainstorming

10. Which of the following best explains why learning English as a second language is easier when a person already knows a historically-related language?
   a. Many words and roots of words are likely to have similar spellings and meanings
   b. Prefixes and suffixes in English are likely to be similar as with the person’s first language
   c. Pronunciation is similar and thus it is easier to hear the pronunciation of irregular words
   d. Social conventions and colloquial sayings are easy to remember and understand

Mathematics Practice Test

*Answers at the bottom

1.Which of the following would be the best concept to introduce to students in a second grade class?
   a. That a square is a rectangle and a rectangle can be square
   b. Pouring water from a wide, short glass into a tall, thin glass does not mean there is more water in the second glass
   c. The proportions of the Earth to the sun and to the solar system
   d. The concept of infinity

2. Which of the following activities is most effective in helping kindergarten students understand measurement of the lengths of small items?
   a. Placing same-size objects, such as Legos or cubes, next to the object and counting the number of objects
   b. Tracing the items on construction paper and cutting the construction paper to have a two-dimensional replica of the item
   c. Listening to a teacher explain how to use a ruler to measure the objects
   d. Watching the teacher estimate the length of the item using a student’s arm or leg

3.What is the digit in the hundreds place in the product of 63 * 31?
   a. 1
   b. 9
   c. 5
   d. 3

4. What is the median and mean of the data set below?

10, 8, 5, 3, 7, 4, 5, 9, 2, 3, 7, 3, 8, 6, 4, 1, 2, 1, 10, 3

   a. Median: 4.5; Mean: 4.5
   b. Median: 4.5; Mean: 5.0
   c. Median: 3.5; Mean: 5.0
   d. Median: 7.0; Mean: 5.0

5. Which situation could best be represented by the equation:  12x = 54?
   a. Marty earns $12 for typing a paper.  If her rate is $54 per hour, what is x, the number of hours it actually took to type the paper?
   b. Marty collected 12 dozen eggs every day for 54 days.  What is x, the total number of dozens of eggs she collected?
   c. Marty had 54 minutes left on her cell phone plan. If she uses 12 minutes, what is x, the number of minutes remaining on her cell phone plan?
   d. Marty made car payments on her car for 54 months until it was paid off.  What is x, the number of years it took Marty to pay off her car?

6. Which of the following equations is written in slope-intercept form?
   a. y = 3x + 5
   b. x = 3y + 5
   c. 3y – 5x = 10
   d. y + 5 = 3x

7. Two angles are complementary.  If the measure of one of the angles is 68°, what is the measure of the other angle?
   a. 22°, because the sum of the measures of complementary angles is 90°.
   b. 112°, because the sum of the measures of complementary angles is 180°.
   c. 68° because complementary angles are congruent to each other.
   d. 292° because the sum of the measures of complementary angles is 360°.

8. Which of the following is the most appropriate learning progression through the levels of geometric thinking?
   a. Analysis, Abstraction, Deduction
   b. Deduction, Visualization, Abstraction
   c. Abstraction, Analysis, Visualization
   d. Analysis, Deduction, Abstraction

9. A runner is running a 10k race. The runner completes 30% of the race in 20 minutes. If the runner continues at this pace, how long will it to finish?
   a. 60 minutes
   b. 62 minutes
   c. 67 minutes
   d. 85 minutes

10. A student tosses a six-sided die and flips a coin. What is the probability that the die will land on 1 and the coin will land showing tails?
   a. 1/3
   b. 1/4
   c. 1/6
   d. 1/12

Social Studies Practice Test

*Answers at the bottom

1. The formal name of the United States of America denotes which type of region?
   a. Language
   b. Religious
   c. Political
   d. Climate

2. Which of the following could be used as a secondary source for a lesson about the American Revolution?
   a. The diary of George Washington
   b. A section about the Taxation Act from a history textbook
   c. The first American flag sewn by Betsy Ross
   d. A letter written by Benjamin Franklin to Thomas Paine

3. Which of the following best describes the impact of the Industrial Revolution on daily life in America?
   a. More newspapers and books were published and encouraged readership.
   b. Public schools taught about the historical events in early America.
   c. Movement of people from rural areas to urban areas, and increases in wages.
   d. An increase in the rise of the super wealthy families and high taxes.

4. Which of the following statements best describes the role of oral storytelling among families and cultures around the world?
   a. Stories are the primary means that cultures today interact and represent themselves with one another
   b. Oral traditions communicate cultural values and practices to others
   c. Oral traditions have been marginalized and made unimportant in most cultures due to the rise of new technologies
   d. Oral traditions are mostly used in religious ceremonies to further particular concepts and to discredit concepts presented by other religions

5. Which of the following best describes the primary goal of the first French explorers of North America?
   a. Establish a vibrant fur trade
   b. Establish a military outpost to combat Spanish dominance of North America
   c. Convert American Indians to Christianity
   d. Discover a western sea-route to trade with Asia

6. The Sons of Liberty played a major role in protesting which of the following?
   a. Quartering Act
   b. Stamp Act
   c. Townshend Acts
   d. Tea Act

7. Which of the following is the primary result of European colonization of Africa?
   a. An increase in the political rights of minority groups
   b. An influx of migration patterns of Europeans to Africa and Africans to Europe
   c. An increase in violent conflicts based upon ethnicity
   d. The dissemination of European language and beliefs throughout Africa

8. A market where a few firms compete against each other is known as:
   a. a monopoly.
   b. an oligopoly.
   c. monopolistic competition.
   d. perfect competition.

9. Which of the following is the best example of a tariff?
   a. A $5,000 tax credit for firms researching solar battery cells
   b. A $50,000 subsidy to corn farmers in Iowa
   c. A 15% tax on year-end investment income
   d. A 20% tax on imported cane sugar

10. Which Constitutional Amendment prohibits the denial of voting based upon race, color, or previous servitude?
   a. Thirteenth Amendment
   b. Fifteenth Amendment
   c. Nineteenth Amendment
   d. Twenty First Amendment

Science Practice Test

*Answers at the bottom

1. Which system controls the function of the body?
   a. Digestive system
   b. Nervous system
   c. Muscle system
   d. Circulatory system

2. To complete the life cycle, dead plants and animals must be broken down to return nutrients to the soil. Which organisms complete this process?
   a. Decomposers
   b. Predators
   c. Prey
   d. Producers

3. A human male transmits Y-chromosome genetic traits only to:
   a. One-half of the man’s male offspring
   b. All the man’s offspring
   c. Only the man’s female offspring
   d. Only the man’s male offspring

4. Which of the following energy transformations occurs when wood burns?
   a. Chemical energy into heat energy
   b. Light energy into mechanical energy
   c. Electrical energy into heat energy
   d. Nuclear energy into mechanical energy

5. A pendulum swings back and forth in a semicircle pattern. When does the pendulum have its greatest potential energy?
   a. When the pendulum starts to move downward
   b. When the pendulum starts to move upward
   c. When the pendulum is at the top of the arc
   d. When the pendulum is at the bottom of the arc

6. Which of the following types of energy is stored in a battery?
   a. Heat
   b. Chemical
   c. Mechanical
   d. Potential

7. Which of the following rocks are formed under molten material?
   a. Shale
   b. Igneous
   c. Sedimentary
   d. Metamorphic

8. Of the following, which best describes the lunar cycle as observed from the earth?
   a. The orbit of the sun around the moon
   b. The orbit of the earth around the sun
   c. The orbit of the moon around the earth
   d. The reflection of earth’s light onto the moon

9. Which of the following is the Coriolis Effect most likely to influence?
   a. The length of a tsunami
   b. The humidity of a European air mass
   c. The circulation pattern of global winds
   d. The amount of radiation from the Sun reaching the surface of the Earth

10. When determining the accurate measurement of a liquid, which piece of equipment would be best to find the liquid’s volume to the nearest milliliter?
   a. Graduated cylinder
   b. Beaker
   c. Ruler
   d. Triple beam balance

11. Terrance lives near a river and is concerned about burning fossil fuels. Which alternative energy in his area would be the best solution?
   a. Hydroelectric energy
   b. Geothermal energy
   c. Wind energy
   d. Solar energy

12. Which of the following is the proper order for the taxonomic hierarchy?
   a. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Family, Order, Genus Species
   b. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
   c. Phylum, Class, Kingdom, Family, Order, Species, Genus
   d. Class, Kingdom, Phylum, Order, Family, Genus, Species

13. Which of the following is a widely accepted explanation that is supported by observational evidence and experimental confirmation?
   a. Hypothesis
   b. Prediction
   c. Theory
   d. Conclusion

Fine Arts Practice Test

*Answers at the bottom

1. What three colors are typically used in a traditional elementary art class because they can be combined to make a variety of other colors?
   a. Red, yellow, and blue
   b. Magenta, yellow, and cyan
   c. Red, purple, and yellow
   d. Black, white, and blue

2. Which of the following best describes how learning about visual arts and artistic expression contributes to students’ emotional development?
   a. Art provides students with a nonverbal outlet and expression of emotion and feelings
   b. Art helps improve students' critical-thinking and self-assessment skills
   c. Viewing and discussing art helps students explore others’ commentaries on the human condition
   d. Studying and creating art promotes brain development in elementary students

3. Which of the following traditional folk songs promotes the heritage of Texas?
   a. “The Old Chisholm Trail”
   b. “Cotton-Eyed Joe”
   c. “Casey Jones”
   d. “Sweet Betsy from Pike”

4. Which of the following musical terms tells the performers to play loudly and then immediately play quietly?
   a. cresc.
   b. mf
   c. dim.
   d. Fp

5. When a singer is described as singing sharp, it means that:
   a. the pitch is too low.
   b. the pitch is too high.
   c. the tempo is too fast.
   d. the tempo is too slow.

6. Which of the following behaviors is most likely to reduce a person’s risk of developing melanoma?
   a. Abstaining from alcohol use
   b. Abstaining from tobacco products
   c. Avoiding exposure to carcinogenic chemicals
   d. Taking precautions to avoid excessive skin exposure to the sun

7. Which of the following terms describes the phenomenon of a young children having greater control of their torso than of their feet?
   a. Component stages
   b. Proximodistal development
   c. Developmental biodynamics
   d. Cephalocaudal development

8. Which of the following movements most clearly demonstrates a basic non-locomotor body management?
   a. Leaping with variation in distance
   b. Standing on a balance beam
   c. Hopping up and down
   d. Throwing a baseball

9. According to current research, which of the following best promotes student participation in lifelong physical activity?
   a. Learning how to play a popular sport
   b. Playing on a team that regularly wins
   c. Acquiring the skills needed to participate in a variety of physical activities
   d. Introducing the students to proper exercise form, such as a proper push-up technique and a proper squatting technique

10. Which of the following activities would best allow students to understand the occupations and elements required to perform a theatrical play?
   a. Have students attend a local high school play
   b. Require students to attend a live performance of a Broadway show during the school year
   c. Have students produce an in-class production where each student is assigned a role in the production
   d. Have students write a short essay on three theater occupations

English Language Arts and Reading Practice Test Answers

  1. Answer Choice (C). This is the best answer. A research paper requires students to cite their sources for the research.
  1. Answer Choice (B). Phonemic awareness is the ability to hear, identify, and manipulate individual sounds in spoken words.
  1. Answer Choice (D). Phoneme deletion is not an easy task and can take some students until the ages of 8 or 9 to master.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Single, closed-syllable words are the most basic words and decoding instruction should start with the most basic words. Examples of single, closed-syllable words include mom, dad, pen, top, hat, etc.
  1. Answer Choice (C). A phoneme is the smallest unit of speech that can be used to make one word different from another word. In the word “hat” the sounds /h/, /a/, and /t/ are all distinct phonemes.
  1. Answer Choice (B). This is the best option because students must first preview the information before analyzing the information.
  1. Answer Choice (C). This is correct because the main method of evaluating reading fluency and determining the reading level is to count the number of words the students read correctly during one-minute of reading.
  1. Answer Choice (D). The stages of the writing process are: Brainstorming, Outlining, Rough Draft, and Revise/Edit the writing. Holding peer conferences is an appropriate activity during the revising/editing stage of the writing process because students can provide feedback on each other’s work.
  1. Answer Choice (A). The prewriting stage is when the students collect their thoughts, resources, and possibly an outline for a writing assignment. Allowing students to verbally communicate to organize their thoughts is a great support for early elementary education students.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Latin is the root language of many European languages, as well as English. Because of the common ancestry of many English words and words of other European languages (German, French, Spanish, etc.), it is likely that speakers whose native language is historically related to English are able to make intuitive guesses about the spellings and meanings of the words.

Need additional help preparing for the exam? Get it here: TExES CORE Subjects EC-6 Study Guide!

Mathematics Practice Test Answers

  1. Answer Choice (A). Children in the second grade, ages 7 and 8, would be at the "concrete operational" level, according to Piaget. At this level, students are able to understand the concept of reversibility. This is the best concept to introduce because it is in-line with the students’ cognitive development.
  1. Answer Choice (A). This is correct because having the student count the number of cubes and placing the cubes next to each item provides a visual for the student to use in determining the length.
  1. Answer Choice (B). 63 * 31 = 1953. The digit that occupies the hundreds place is 9.
  1. Answer Choice (B). The median is simply the middle term. In this set, however, there are 20 terms so the middle two terms are 4 and 5.  The median in this case is the average of the two middle scores: (4+5)÷2 = 4.5: median = 4.5.  The mean is the sum of all of the numbers in the data set divided by 20, the number of items in the data set: 101 ÷ 20 = 5.02. The mean is about 5.0. The mean is written as 5.0 because the value has been rounded to the nearest tenth; writing the mean as 5 would indicate that it is an exact whole number, 5.
  1. Answer Choice (D). This is the correct situation for the given equation. 54 months divided by 12 months per year gives us 4 ½ years.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Slope-intercept form is y = mx + b where M can be a numerical value and B is a constant. Or described another way, M is the slope of x and y is the point where the line intercepts with the y-axis. This is why it is called slope-intercept form.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Complementary angles are two angles whose sum is 90 degrees.  So if one angle is 68 degrees, its complement would be 90 – 68 = 22 degrees.
  1. Answer Choice (B). The progression of geometric thinking is: Visualization -> Analysis -> Abstraction -> Deduction. Visualization is the ability for a student to identify a shape based on its appearance (it's a square because it looks like a square). Analysis is the ability to identify a shape based on properties (it’s a square because it has four equal sides). Abstraction is where students form abstract definitions about shapes (all squares are rectangles, not all rectangles are squares). Deduction is the ability to prove statements about a geometric shape are true (geometric proofs).
  1. Answer Choice (C). To find the answer to this question set up a ratio; remember that 30% = .3 and 100% = 1. (20 / .3) = (X / 1). When you cross multiply to solve for X, you get the equation .3x = 20. Divide each side by .3 to isolate X and the answer is 66.66666. The best answer choice is 67 minutes. 
  1. Answer Choice (D). The probability of getting any number on a six-sided die is one out of six (1/6), because there are six equally possible sides. The probability of a coin landing on tails is one in two (1/2) because there are two equally possible outcomes. To find the probability of a 1/6 instance happening at the same time of a ½ instance, simply multiply the probabilities together. This yields (1/6) * (1/2) = (1/12).

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Social Studies Practice Test Answers

  1. Answer Choice (C). The name of the United States of America denotes a political region that is under the governing of the United States government. Within the United States of America there are many languages, religions, and climates.
  1. Answer Choice (B). A history textbook would be a secondary source of information.
  1. Answer Choice (C). The major effect of the Industrial Revolution on life in America was to encourage the movement of families from rural areas to cities, where urban living provided higher wages and opportunities for advancement.
  1. Answer Choice (B). This is correct because the family unit uses storytelling to convey knowledge about culture and society.
  1. Answer Choice (D). Jacques Cartier was the first Frenchman to explore North America. He was sent in 1534 under commission from the French king to find a western passage to the lucrative markets of Asia. A secondary goal of Cartier, and subsequent French explorers, was establishing land claims for France. Eventually the land claims proved to be profitable and the hope of finding a western passage was discarded. As more French explorers claimed North American land and established forts for France, French missionaries and adventurers migrated to the New World to convert Indians and capitalize on the emerging lucrative fur trade.
  1. Answer Choice (B). The Stamp Act of 1765 enacted a tax on all newspapers along with legal and commercial documents. It was protested by the Sons of Liberty and repealed by the British government in 1766.
  1. Answer Choice (C). Europeans classified the Africans by ethnicity and language. This caused many conflicts between the groups long after the effects of European colonization diminished.
  1. Answer Choice (B). An oligopoly is a market where only a few firms supply a good or resource. A few examples would be Anheuser-Busch and MillerCoors which produce 80% of the beer sold in America; AT&T, Verizon, T-Mobile, and Sprint which control roughly 89% of the cellular telephone service in the U.S.
  1. Answer Choice (D). A tariff is a tax on products imported or exported from a country. This is a good example of a tariff.
  1. Answer Choice (B). The Fifteenth Amendment prohibits the denial to vote based on race, color, or previous servitude.

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Science Practice Test Answers

  1. Answer Choice (B). The nervous system contains the brain, spinal cord, and nerves.  The brain controls all functions of the body.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Dead and decaying plants and animals are the source of nutrients in the soil.  Decomposers break down the tissue of dead plants and animals, returning the nutrients to the soil.
  1. Answer Choice (D). Human males generally have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome and human females generally have two X chromosomes. A Y-chromosome genetic trait will only pass the male offspring of a human male.
  1. Answer Choice (A). When wood burns chemical energy is converted into heat energy because some of the chemical energy stored in the chemical bonds of the substances in wood is released as heat during the combustion process.
  1. Answer Choice (C). Potential energy is the stored energy of an object; it is the energy by virtue of an object’s position relative to other objects. In regards to the pendulum, at what point of the pendulum’s swing does the pendulum have the most potential, or stored, energy? The answer is at the top of the arc because the pendulum is not moving upward or downward, but because of gravity will have to swing downward. Thus, at the top of the arc the pendulum has the greatest potential energy.
  1. Answer Choice (B). Chemical energy is energy stored in the bonds of a chemical compound. The breaking of the chemical bonds releases energy, usually in the form of heat.
  1. Answer Choice (B). Igneous rock is rock that is solidified lava or magma.
  1. Answer Choice (C). The lunar cycle is a result of the moon orbiting the earth in relation to the sun. The illumination of the moon by the sun from the perspective of the earth allows people on earth to track the lunar cycle. As the moon orbits the earth, different angles of the moon are visible from earth because of how the moon is illuminated by the sun. This variance in illumination from the perspective of earth results in people on earth being able to monitor the orbit of the moon.
  1. Answer Choice (C). The Coriolis Effect is the apparent deflection of moving objects when the motion is described relative to a rotating reference frame. In the context of the answer option, it is the appearance that global winds spiral downwards from the viewpoint of the Earth.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Graduated cylinders have graduated milliliter measurement lines to measure volume.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Since Terrance lives near a river, water would be the best choice for an energy resource.  Hydroelectric energy is possible with flowing water.
  1. Answer Choice (B). This is the correct order for the taxonomic rank. The taxonomic rank is a way to group species based upon relative, or common, characteristics. The more specific a group, the more characteristics animals within that classification share.
  1. Answer Choice (C). A theory is a supposition or a system of ideas intended to explain something, especially one based on general principles independent of the thing to be explained.

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Fine Arts Practice Test Answers

  1. Answer Choice (A). These are the traditional primary colors that an elementary art class would mix to create additional colors.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Art allows students to express emotions in a nonverbal manner. The expression of emotions and feelings is important in students’ emotional development.
  1. Answer Choice (A). Texas ranchers used the Chisholm Trail to drive cattle to the rail yards in Kansas.
  1. Answer Choice (D). This symbol means to perform loudly and then immediately perform quietly.
  1. Answer Choice (B). Singing a pitch too high is “singing sharp”.
  1. Answer Choice (D). Melanoma is a type of skin cancer caused by long, unprotected exposure to the sun. Melanoma is best prevented by taking precautions against prolonged exposure to the sun.
  1. Answer Choice (D). Cephalocaudal development describes a physical development that begins in the head and progresses down the body. An example would be a development that begins in the brain and progresses down the body to the ankles and feet.
  1. Answer Choice (B). Non-locomotor body management would be an activity where there is no movement, but body control is required. Standing on a balance beam requires body control and management, but does not require movement.
  1. Answer Choice (C). It is unlikely students will always win; students need to learn how to win and lose gracefully.
  1. Answer Choice (C). This is the best activity to understand the occupations and elements required to perform a theatrical play because it allows a hands-on experience by the students in creating a theatrical play from beginning to end.

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Helpful Resources


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The two ETS resources are an elaboration of state standards assessed on the CORE Subjects EC-6, general exam information, and practice questions. They are great resources for in-depth preparation. 

ETS CORE Subjects EC-6 Preparation Manual

ETS CORE Subjects EC-6 Test at a Glance


CORE Subjects EC-6 Resources

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